Exam #2
Name________________________________
Biology 251 (By
placing my name in the above space, I attest that I am in complete compliance
with the
23 February 2007
PART A. Please provide an appropriate definition for
each of the following terms. Do not just
provide an example. Each correct
response is worth 2 pts.
1.
macronutrient-
2. thermophile-
3. facultative anaerobe-
4.
biocide-
5. microbiological death-
6.
autoclave-
7. sonication-
8.
phenol-
9.
antibiotic-
10.
penicillin-
11.
quinine-
12.
acyclovir-
13.
virulence-
14.
toxemia-
15.
symptom-
16.
thermal death point (TDP)–
PART B. Please select the best answer to each
question. Each correct response is worth
1 pt.
_____17. Bacteria are able to use _____ as a carbon
source.
a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____18. Microbes can vary greatly in their:
a. vitamin
requirements
b. oxygen
requirements
c. method of
obtaining energy
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____19. Protein can be used as a _____ source by
bacteria.
a. nitrogen
b. carbon
c. sulfur
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____20. Heterotrophic microbes that obtain carbon
from dead organisms are called:
a. saprobes
b. parasites
c. photoautotrophs
d. chemoautotrophs
e. none of the above
_____21. Diffusion of water through a semi-permeable
membrane is referred to as:
a. simple diffusion
b. facilitated
diffusion
c. osmosis
d. endocytosis
e. none of the above
_____22. Most pathogenic organisms would be:
a. mesophiles
b. psychrophiles
c. thermophiles
d. nailphiles
e. none of the above
_____23. Microaerophiles:
a. require oxygen in
large amounts
b. require oxygen in
small amounts
c. can grow with or
without oxygen
d. cannot grow in the
presence of oxygen
e. none of the above
_____24. The different types of bacteria involved with
gum disease grow much better in each other's presence than
when
they are growing separately. This
cooperative relationship is called:
a. symbiosis
b. synergism
c. commensalism
d. antagonism
e. none of the above
_____25. The method of reproduction for bacteria is
called:
a. meiosis
b. binary fission
c. synergism
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____26. Which of the following phases occurs first in
a normal bacterial growth curve?
a. death phase
b. exponential phase
c. lag phase
d. stationary phase
e. none of the above
_____27. Which of the following instruments is used to
measure bacterial numbers?
a. autoclave
b. sonicator
c. dessicator
d. cytometer
e. none of the above
_____28. If you cut your finger, which of the
following antimicrobial substances should you put on the cut?
a. disinfectant
b. sterilant
c. anti-parasitic
drug
d. antiseptic
e. none of the above
_____29. A microbe can be declared dead if it:
a. doesn't move
b. doesn't breathe
c. doesn't grow under
ideal conditions
d. stains purple
using crystal violet
e. none of the above
_____30. Antimicrobial agents can be affected by:
a. temperature
b. pH
c. interfering
molecules
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____31. Penicillin:
a. denatures proteins
in bacteria
b. interferes with
DNA synthesis in bacteria
c. breaks up lipid
membranes in bacteria
d. interferes with
cell wall synthesis in bacteria
e. none of the above
_____32. Which of the following forms of heat
sterilization kills bacteria the quickest?
a. boiling
b. steam not under
pressure
c. steam under
pressure
d. pasteurization
e. dry oven
_____33. Which of the following techniques is not
designed to kill all bacteria?
a. autoclaving
b. pasteurization
c. incineration
d. all of the above
are designed to kill all bacteria
e. none of the above
are designed to kill all bacteria
_____34. Using moist heat, such as in an autoclave,
bacteria can be killed in 3 minutes at 134 C, or 10 minutes at 125
C, or 15 minutes at 121 C.
What is the thermal death point?
a. 134 C
b. 125 C
c. 121 C
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____35. You are raising the temperature of a
substance to 63 – 66 C for 30 minutes.
This is:
a. boiling
b. autoclaving
c. pasteurization
d. incineration
e. sonication
_____36. Which of the following forms of physical
microbial control is primarily bacteriostatic?
a. cold
b. steam under
pressure
c. incineration
d. ionizing radiation
e. nonionizing
radiation
_____37. Which of the following would not be a
desirable quality of a germicide?
a. solubility in
water or alcohol
b. resistant to
inactivation
c. noncorrosive
d. mainly bacteriostatic
e. rapid action in
low concentrations
_____38. Surgical instruments should be subject to
____ level decontamination procedures.
a. no
b. low
c. intermediate
d. high
_____39. A factor that affects germicidal activity
would be:
a. the nature of the
treated material
b. the degree of
contamination
c. the time of
exposure
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____40. Fluoride and chlorox
are examples of:
a. chlorhexidines
b. aldehydes
c. halogens
d. phenols
e. none of the above
_____41. Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobic?
a. penicillin
b. tetracycline
c. erythromycin
d. sulfa drug
e. none of the above
_____42. Antibiotics come from:
a. our own immune
system
b. certain rocks
c. certain microbes
d. petroleum products
e. none of the above
_____43. The primary aim of anti-infective therapy is
to:
a. kill all microbes
in the human body
b. kill all living
things
c. destroy the
infectious microbe without harming the body
d. destroy the body
without harming the infectious microbe
e. none of the above
_____44. Antimicrobial drugs can:
a. inhibit cell wall
synthesis
b. inhibit nucleic
acid synthesis
c. inhibit protein
synthesis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____45. Antibiotic resistance occurs primarily when:
a. antibiotics are
not used.
b. antibiotics are
overused.
c. viruses infect
bacteria
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____46. Which of the following antibiotics (derived
from Bacillus) is found primarily in topical ointments, like
Neosporin?
a. bacitracin
b. erythromycin
c. rifampin
d. penicillin
e. tetracycline
_____47. Which synthetic drug is used in tuberculosis
treatment?
a. penicillin
b. amphotericin
B
c. quinine
d. acyclovir
e. isoniazid
_____48. Which of the following is an anti-fungal
drug?
a. azidothymidine
(AZT)
b. mebendazole
c. chloramphenicol
d. rifampin
e. nystatin
_____49. If you have worms, which of the following
drugs would be used in treatment?
a. quinine
b. amphotericin
B
c. penicillin
d. erythromycin
e. mebendazole
_____50. Respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV) is treated using:
a. acyclovir
b. erythromycin
c. nystatin
d. isoniazid
e. ribavirin
_____51. Aplastic anemia is
a serious side-affect associated with ____ usage.
a. sulfa drug
b. tetracycline
c. aminoglycoside
d. chloramphenicol
e. penicillin
_____52. In a drug susceptibility test, the following
antibiotics showed the following zones of inhibition: Penicillin –
0
mm, Erythromycin - 10 mm, Tetracycline - 5 mm. Which would be the best antibiotic for
treatment?
a. penicillin
b. erythromycin
c. tetracycline
d. all are equally
effective
e. none of the above
are effective
_____53. Which of the following locations in your body
have resident flora?
a. skin
b. large intestine
c. upper respiratory
tract
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____54. Lactobacillus, an
acid-loving bacteria, is often found as a resident of the:
a. lungs
b. nose
c. skin
d. large intestine
e. vagina
_____55. The potential to cause disease is called:
a. pathogenicity
b. virulence
c. toxicity
d. epidemiology
e. all of the above
_____56. Which of the following pathogens can use the
placental portal of entry into a baby?
a. Salmonella
b. influenza
c. rabies
d. HIV
e. none of the above
_____57. Enzymes that aid the penetration of a microbe
into a host are called:
a. acyclovirs
b. exoenzymes
c. endotoxins
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
_____58. When toxins are ingested, it is called:
a. toxemia
b. intoxication
c. adhesion
d. nosocomial
infection
e. none of the above
_____59. A wart is generally considered to be a ____
infection.
a. nosocomial
b. hemolytic
c. endemic
d. systemic
e. localized
_____60.
Which of the following is a symptom, not a sign?
a. blurred vision
b. high blood pressure
c. fever
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
PART C.
SHORT ANSWER. 8 pts apiece.
61, 62 & 63. Answer three of the following
questions:
a. Discuss the differences between mutualism
(symbiosis), commensalism, synergism, and antagonism.
b. How could you detect whether a bacterium was
a strict aerobe, strict anaerobe, facultative anaerobe, or
microaerophile by
growing them in a broth culture?
c. What are four methods of sterilization that
involve heat? Describe each method.
d. What would you use the following anti-microbic chemicals for:
penicillin, amphotericin B, acyclovir,
mebendazole.
e. Describe the difference between a localized
infection, a focal infection and a systemic infection. Give an
example
of each.
For extra credit (5 pts): Describe the difference between an
asymptomatic carrier, an incubation carrier, a convalescent
carrier, and a fomite.